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Post Statistics: 1,306 Views, 10 Replies
Latest Post: Mon, Nov 15 2010 12:44 PM by Wayne Cartwright
  • Sun, Sep 5 2010 9:48 PM
    Loan Scenario: NJ, $1,400,000, 646, 70% LTV, Purchase
    Loan Scenario
    Loan State: New Jersey
    Loan County: Essex
    Loan Type: Purchase
    Loan Amount: $1,400,000
    Property Value: $2,000,000
    LTV: 70%
    FICO: 646
    DTI: ---
    Occupancy Type: Owner-Occupied
    Property Type: Single Family Residence

     646 middle score. Credit blemish from a divorce and can be documented. Has 2.5 million dollars in assets. 5% DTI,  Might need to go stated, no ratio or light doc, did not file taxes for 09 yet. Can anyone help me??. 

  • Thu, Sep 9 2010 4:06 PM

    You're still able to purchase with that score, however, do you have an idea of what blemish you have on your credit report?  Do you have a copy of your recent credit report?  

  • Fri, Sep 10 2010 3:30 PM

    Yes, He does have a recent copy of credit report. Paid tax judgment and ex-wife had 1 30 day late on car note about 4-5 years ago.

  • Mon, Sep 13 2010 9:38 AM

    You mentioned that your credit report was blemished.  By looking at a recent copy of your credit report will let me or any Mortgage banker know what needs to be done before the loan process begins.

  • Mon, Sep 13 2010 3:40 PM

    We have an attorney disputing the 1 x30 day late payment . If this comes off the credit score should go up.

  • Wed, Sep 15 2010 10:04 PM

    This is not an issue. Several savings banks in NJ can do this deal, as they do not look at credit scores, but depth and history of credit listed. If you want more info, let me know, i would be happy to share it with you.

     - View My Profile
    Senior Vice President
    United Mortgage Services, LLLC
    dkramer@umsllc.com
    (201) 568-8827 x112
  • Mon, Sep 27 2010 3:47 PM

    Best stated option I have only would only go up to $1M for your scenario, as long as you are self-employed for at least 2 years and it looks like the assets are there, and if you can explain the credit blemishes, you should have no problem going this route.  Of course, it would require and additional $400K down payment.   

  • Mon, Sep 27 2010 8:12 PM

    Yes the scenario is 100% correct. Can I contact you?

  • Rate this Post:
    Tue, Sep 28 2010 3:19 PM

    The issue here is not credit report because per your statement, the blemish is due to a divorce which can be documented. An professionally written LOE will suffice. The main issue is non-filing of 2009 tax. Why? Most investors will require a 4506-T to verify tax. You see, you said that the borrower has asset worth millions of dollars. What kind of assets are these? Liquid (cash on hand, bank deposits, CD, Investments, etc)? or solid assets such as land, buldings, real estate owned? Whatever the assets are, those must be reported in his personal/business income tax return filing. If he is late in 2009 filing, there must be a proof that he had filed an extension. The IRS must have already sent him a notice to this effect and perhaps your borrower and IRS have made a payment arrangement plan which document you can use.

    The other issue you must resolve is to explain why you prefer to go sub-prime (Stated, light-doc or no-doc) program. It is inconsistent to what your borrower stands financially (having 2.5 million dollar assets) and credit wise 646 mid fico score. That kind of asset tells the Underwriter that the borrower has the means to go conventional. If your borrower is a self-employed, then surely there will be financial statements of 2008 that will show he has been in business for two years. The 2009 can be explained by the IRS payment arrangement plan if there is any forged by borrower and IRS. For 2010, the first two quarters can be shown in the balance sheet and Profit and Loss Statements, Again, the work of a professional CPA is vital in this case.

    Stated income, stated assets, no-doc program are now obsolete. Perhaps the reason why you want to go this way, is that there is no documentation your borrower can show as to his sorce of income. If this is the real truth, then your borrower can not show his capability to pay his mortgage payments if the loan is granted. If you are planning to go this route (forgive me for saying this) you are thredding in the area of predatory lending violation practices. No lender will do that because it has been established as one of the causes of foreclosures. I will encourage you NOT to go into it.

    Perhaps your best bet is to go to Credit Unions (smaller banks who have their own portfolio). Or, to the bank where your borrower has established an account. Because as an account holder or Credit Union member, your client stands a good chance. You will still be the main Real Estate Agent for him. Unless and until you can show proper income documentation to show the ability of borrwer to pay, your loan scenario is weak.

    Another thing: yourDTI is only 5%. That means, he has awashed with money. His disposable income (gorss income less household expenses) is high and therefore can and will be able to afford mortgage payment. If your DTI is really that low, question will be why go into Stated, no doc sub-prime program?

    Look for a good loan broker in your area to help you put your file in order.

    Best regards,

    Allan Romero - Rancho California Mortgage 8401 White Oak Ave. Rancho Cucamonga, CA 91730 Tel; (909) 657-2244

     

  • Mon, Nov 15 2010 12:44 PM

    Tamara,

    I would appreciate an opportunity to assist you with obtaining the funding that you are seeking. Please email me or give me a call at your convenience to discuss further details.

    Best Regards,

    Wayne Cartwright

    The Welshire Fund

    661-886-8280

    brotherwayne1@gmail.com

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