A cash out can vary depending on the loan type, the lender, and the guidelines that they follow. For our purposes I will cover the most common loan, a conventional Fannie Mae/Freddie Mac mortgage. Most other loan guidelines follow similarly.
The current Fannie/Freddie definition of a cash out mortgage is any new mortgage that includes money to do anything other than pay off an existing first mortgage, and cover the closing costs associated with the loan. Examples would be paying off a first mortgage, a second mortgage, credit cards, any other debt or actually receiving cash back from the close of the loan. If you are just paying off a first mortgage and closing costs, you can typically receive up to 2% of the loan amount up to a maximum of $2000 back before it would be considered cash out. Once you pass either $2000 or 2% of your loan amount your loan application is considered cash out. There is one caveat under the Fannie rule that says that if you are paying off a first and a second mortgage, AND the funds from the second were used to purchase the home, than it can be considered a Rate and Term refinance (non cash out).
The reason
interest rates increase on cash out loans is that a cash out loan is typically viewed as a riskier loan than a simple rate and term transaction. Think about it from the lender or Fannie's perspective - if someone owes $150,000 on a home worth $250,000 and simply wants to refinance the $150,000 loan to lower their interest rate, assuming they are able to make their payments, the loan becomes less risky than their current loan. This is because you are not increasing the exposure to default, as the loan amount is the same, and by lowering their interest rate their monthly payment will actually go down. Now look at it as a cash out. Let's say that the same person wants to get a loan for $200,000 on the $250,000 house, paying off the existing $150,000 mortgage and paying off credit cards with the other $50,000. In theory, they will be lowering their payments and consolidating debt, this is good for the borrower as it puts them in a stronger financial position. However, from the lenders perspective, they have now lent $200,000 on the $250,000 house. To the mortgage lender, they now have 80% exposure to the value of the home, versus only 60% if they had completed a rate and term refinance. While it's true that the borrower hasn't incurred any new debt, the lender is in a worse position in regards to collateral than if they had only lent $150,000. To compensate for this higher risk, they impose pricing hits in the form of either higher closing costs, or higher interest rates for the borrower.
Answer Submitted on Thu, Jan 22 2009
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