I went back and read Bryan's post on page one. Rather than try and say what he might have meant I'll just say this.
http://www.hud.gov/offices/hsg/ramh/res/gfestimate.pdf
On the second page of the new GFE at the top is: "1. Our origination charge" this is all fees charged by the originator and/or the lender. It does NOT include any credit for YSP. After the buyer accepts the GFE this number can not change except for the very rare instance of a "changed circumstance." If there is a changed circumstance a new GFE would be provided. There is no tolerance for this number to be even one cent different from the GFE with what goes on the HUD-1 at closing.
Right below that is: "2. Your credit or charge (points) for the specific interest rate chosen"
There are 3 boxes below. Only one is chosen. If the lender is giving a credit for YSP the second box is chosen and the amount of YSP is credited to the buyer in that box.
Then the credit for YSP in #2 is subtracted from the amount in #1 above and the result is entered into box "A Your Adjusted Origination Charges"
So to use a simplified example on a $100,000 loan. Say the lender fees are $600, the broker wants $300 processing and 2% of which 1% was going to come from the lender paying 1% YSP and 1% as an origination fee from the buyer. With the old GFE the broker would get $2,300 ($300 + $1,000 origination + $1,000 YSP) and the lender would get $600 in fees and the buyer would expect to pay $600 lender fees + $300 broker processing fee + $1,000 broker origination fee = $1,900 in lender and broker fees.
With the new GFE line one above would have $2,900 for the origination charge. The lender would get $600 and the Broker would get $2,300 just like above on the old GFE. Line 2 would have the second box checked and a credit of $1,000 would be entered.
Box A would have the "Adjusted Origination Charges" equal to Line 1 plus the credit on line 2 = $2,900 + (-$1,000 YSP) = $1,900. This is how much the borrower is paying out of pocket for broker and lender fees ... the same amount the borrower is expecting to pay in lender/broker fees in the old GFE above.
Lets say that using the same example as above the borrower chose to go forward with the loan and the interest rate was not locked. Line 1 "Our Origination Charge" could not change under almost all situations. The broker could make $2,300 as above, but no more -- whether rates increased or decreased and whether YSP increased or decreased. however the amount of YSP can change on line 2. If it did change and the borrower agreed to lock-in a revised GFE would be issued. Line 2 in the revised GFE could be more or less than it was originally based on nothing different than the market. If the YSP decreased the borrower would have to pay more at closing. If the YSP increased the borrower would pay less at closing. But line 1# can not be increased and the broker can not take advantage of an increase in YSP to increase their revenue on the transaction.
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I read some of the post regarding the new GFE and it's affect on APR. With the patchwork of regulations that must be followed it is no surprise that people are confused on this, but the GFE is a RESPA disclosure while the APR calculation is part of the TIL Act. Regardless of how fees are disclosed on the GFE the APR should not change. I imagine that the Federal Reserve will have to issue an opinion (they're not going to take mine) but I would think that the credit from a lender in the form of YSP should reduce the prepaid finance charge and leave the APR the same whether the new or old GFE is used to disclose for RESPA purposes.