The question is....are you assuming the mortgage from her? This may not be possible as many do not have assuption clause. If you are not assuming the mortgage, then this may be considered some sort of seller financing. The mortgage, if not assumable, would remain in her name, your payments would be made to her and then remitted to the lender. This in and of itself is risky, as you have no legal interest in the property. Obviously, if the homeowner were to pay off the current mortgage and then to offer you financing on the property, it would be at her disgression rates and terms...Feel free to call for a free consultation....My office number is 760-730-5040
sincerely, Tarhn Koerting